Respuesta :

Answer:

No it isn't.

Step-by-step explanation:

A function gives just one  

y

for every  

x

.

In this case there will always be two  

y

's for every  

x

, because the reverse will be  

y

=

+

√

x

or

y

=

−

√

x

Example:  

x

=

4

→

y

=

−

2

or

y

=

+

2    

bbrown777
No it isn’t because a function gives a y for every x