Respuesta :

Answer:

yes

Step-by-step explanation:

If x = - [tex]\frac{1}{3}[/tex] , then p(x) = 0

p( - [tex]\frac{1}{3}[/tex] ) = - [tex]\frac{1}{3}[/tex] × 3 + 1 = - 1 + 1 = 0

Thus x = - [tex]\frac{1}{3}[/tex] is a zero of p(x)